CBSE Class 12 Economics Important Questions 2027 (Repeated in Board Exams)
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75 question patterns that appeared in two or more of the analysed papers (5 board + 2 official sample papers (2022–2026)). The numbers change; the question does not.
National Income and Related Aggregates
1. Circular flow of income in a two-sector economy (real/money flow, factor vs product market)
4×Board 2023Board 2024Board 2026Sample 20261/3 marks
In a two sector economy, the flow of factor payments moves from ______ to ______. (A) firms, households (B) firms, government (C) banks, households (D) households, firms
2. Statement-based MCQ on final vs intermediate goods
2×Board 2026Sample 20261 marks
Read the following statements carefully. Statement 1: Final goods are those goods which normally lose their identity in the production process. Statement 2: Final goods may get transformed during the consumption process by a consumer. Choose the correct option: (A) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. (B) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true. (C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
3. Estimate domestic sales of two firms with equal GVA by the value-added method
2×Board 2026Sample 20263/4 marks
For a hypothetical economy, assuming there are only two firms (X and Y) with equal values of Gross Value Added (GVA). On the basis of the following data, estimate the value of Domestic Sales of both the firms (X and Y): (i) Value of Output of firm Y 700, (ii) Purchases by firm X from firm Y 200, (iii) Exports by firm X 100, (iv) Purchases by firm Y from firm X 150, (v) Additions to Stock of firm X 50. (Amount in `crore)
4. Classify given receipts into factor income vs transfer income with reasons
2×Board 2026Sample 20264 marks
Ms. Reeta D'Costa, retired from the post of Income Tax Commissioner in the year 2023. Apart from her pension, she also receives the following from various sources: Rental income from a flat she owns; Interest income from her fixed deposits; Money sent by her children settled abroad. Identify and classify her monthly incomes into 'factor income' and 'transfer income', with valid reasons.
5. Numerical: compute nominal GDP or GDP deflator from the real GDP and price index
2×Board 2022Sample 20261/3 marks
"Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is estimated to attain a level of `173.82 lakh crore in the year 2023-24. The corresponding Nominal GDP is estimated to stand at `295.36 lakh crore in the same year." On the basis of the given data, the value of GDP deflator would be ______. A. 295.36 B. 58.85 C. 169.92 D. 173.82
6. Calculate NDP/domestic income by the expenditure method from data
2×Board 2024Sample 20253 marks
On the basis of the given data, estimate the value of Domestic Income (NDPFC): (i) Household Consumption Expenditure 800, (ii) Gross Business Fixed Capital Formation 150, (iii) Gross Residential Construction Investment 120, (iv) Government Final Consumption Expenditure 170, (v) Excess of Imports over Exports 20, (vi) Inventory Investment 140, (vii) Gross Public Investment 500, (viii) Net Indirect Taxes 70, (ix) Net Factor Income From Abroad (-)50, (x) Consumption of Fixed Capital 40. (Amounts in `crore)
7. MCQ: identify the adjustment between two valuations of national income/value added
2×Board 2023Sample 20251 marks
To arrive at the value of Gross Value Added at Market Price (GVAMP) ______ must be added to Gross Value Added (GVA) at Basic Prices. (A) Product Taxes (B) Net Product Taxes (C) Production Taxes (D) Net Production Taxes
8. Evaluate that real GDP is a better growth/welfare indicator than nominal GDP
2×Board 2024Board 20263 marks
Meera and Shahid are two classmates comparing India's economic growth over the years. Meera referred to the increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at current prices prevailing in market, while Sahid insisted on considering GDP after adjusting for inflation. Their debate on which of the two measures gives a true picture of people's well-being remained inconclusive. Considering the above situation, elaborate with valid reason, which of the two variables is considered a better indicator of welfare and why?
9. Distinguish between stock and flow variables with examples
2×Board 2022Board 20252/3 marks
Distinguish between Stock and flow variables, using suitable examples.
10. Calculate Net Value Added at Factor Cost by the value-added method from data
2×Board 2022Board 20253 marks
Calculate the value of Net Value Added at Factor Cost (NVAFC): (i) Operating Surplus 3,740, (ii) Increase in unsold stock 600, (iii) Sales 10,625, (iv) Purchase of raw materials 2,625, (v) Consumption of fixed capital 500, (vi) Subsidies 400, (vii) Indirect taxes 1,200. (Amounts in `crore)
11. Explain/distinguish externalities (positive vs negative) with example
2×Board 2022Board 20242 marks
Elaborate the concept of Externalities with the help of suitable example.
12. Distinguish between value of output and value addition
2×Board 2022Board 20232/3 marks
Distinguish between 'Value Addition' and 'Final Value of Output'.
Money and Banking
13. Explain/evaluate the banker-to-government (Government's Bank) function of the central bank
3×Board 2023Board 2026Sample 20263/4 marks
"Under the provisions stated in the Section 20 and Section 21 of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, the RBI is mandated to handle the banking operations of the Government of India." In the light of the given statement, elaborate the indicated function of the Reserve Bank of India.
14. Explain/justify how the reserve ratio (CRR/SLR) limits or affects credit creation
3×Board 2023Board 2026Sample 20261/3/4 marks
"In the Indian Banking System, the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) plays a vital role in controlling the credit creation capacity of the Commercial Banks, as it ______." (A) ensures that all the deposits are converted into liquid assets. (B) requires banks to maintain a percentage of deposits in the form of liquid assets. (C) sets the maximum interest rate which the banks can charge on loans. (D) promote banks from lending beyond a specific proportion of their total reserves.
15. Identify/justify the store-of-value function (money non-perishable, transfers purchasing power)
2×Board 2026Sample 20261 marks
Read the following statements: Assertion (A): Money is of perishable nature and is generally accepted by all at any point of time. Reason (R): Money serves as a store of value, facilitating individuals to transfer purchasing power from the present to the future. Choose the correct option: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.
16. Numerical MCQ: compute Money Supply (M1) from its components
2×Board 2026Sample 20261 marks
In an economy, the currency held by the public, Net Demand Deposits with Commercial Banks and Net Time Deposits with Commercial Banks stand at `1,42,000 crore, `22,000 crore and `86,000 crore respectively. The value of Money Supply (M1) would be `______ crore. (A) 2,50,000 (B) 86,000 (C) 1,64,000 (D) 1,42,000
17. Numerical: total deposits/credit created from a primary deposit and reserve ratio
2×Board 2024Board 20251/4 marks
Suppose in an economy, primary deposits are `500, if the Reserve Ratio is 25%. Estimate the total deposits created and the total lending by the banking system.
18. Identify/justify the standard-of-deferred-payment function of money
2×Board 2024Board 20251/2 marks
"Irfaan (a student) borrows `80,000 to finance his college fee. He plans to begin repaying the loan six months after his graduation, making payments over a span of ten years." Based on above text, identify the indicated function of money. (A) Medium of Exchange (B) Unit of Account (C) Standard of Deferred Payments (D) Store of Value
19. Case study: cause/consequence of a policy-rate change on the economy and money supply
2×Board 2023Board 20242/4 marks
(Based on the RBI rate-setting text above) Discuss the likely consequence on money supply if the rate setting panel would have decreased the said rate.
Determination of Income and Employment
20. Explain/compute the working of the investment multiplier (rounds of income/consumption)
3×Board 2022Sample 2025Sample 20263/4 marks
Suppose in an economy, the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0.8. The government introduced an investment project of `1,000 crore which led to a manifold increase in National Income (Y) and Consumption Expenditure (C). Estimate: (a) Value of Investment Multiplier (k). (b) Missing Values of (i) and (ii). Table (Rounds, ΔI, ΔY, ΔC, ΔS): Round I: ΔI 1,000, ΔY 1,000, ΔC 800, ΔS 200; Round II: ΔY 800, ΔC 640, ΔS 160; ...; Total: ΔY ..(i).., ΔC ..(ii).., ΔS 1,000.
21. Explain central-bank/monetary measures (incl. OMO) to correct deficient demand
3×Board 2022Board 2026Sample 20251/4/5 marks
[Question for Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 15] State and explain any two measures that can be taken by the Central Bank to control the situation of deficient demand.
22. Numerical: find equilibrium (and break-even) income from consumption function and investment
3×Board 2022Board 2025Sample 20252/4 marks
In an economy; C = 200 + 0.75Y (where C is consumption expenditure and Y is National Income). Investment expenditure is `4,000 Crore. Calculate: (i) Equilibrium level of income. (ii) Total consumption expenditure at equilibrium income level.
23. MCQ: identify the aggregate that falls short to define a deflationary gap
2×Board 2026Sample 20261 marks
In an economy, when ______ is insufficient to achieve the level of output corresponding to the full employment, the difference is termed a deflationary gap. (A) ex-ante Aggregate Demand (B) ex-post Aggregate Demand (C) ex-ante Aggregate Supply (D) ex-post Aggregate Supply
24. MCQ: identify the condition true at the break-even level of income (APC = 1)
2×Board 2026Sample 20261 marks
Identify, which of the following is true at the Break Even level of Income. (A) Slope of Consumption Curve = Slope of Saving Curve (B) Average Propensity to Consume (APC) = Average Propensity to Save (APS) (C) Slope of Saving Curve = Unity (1) (D) Average Propensity to Consume (APC) = Unity (1)
25. Explain two central-bank measures to control inflation / excess demand
2×Board 2026Sample 20264 marks
Refer the given image carefully (a balance scale showing 'Value of Money' falling on one side and 'General Price level' rising on the other). Explain any two measures that can be taken by the Central Bank to control the indicated macroeconomic problem (inflation / excess demand).
26. Explain the adjustment/impact when ex-ante AD exceeds ex-ante AS (effective demand)
2×Board 2024Sample 20264 marks
Define Effective Demand. Explain the adjustment mechanism to attain the level of Effective Demand, if ex-ante Aggregate Demand is more than ex-ante Aggregate Supply.
27. Numerical: find the value of the investment multiplier from MPC/MPS
3×Board 2023Board 2024Board 20251 marks
Suppose, the saving curve of an economy makes an intercept at a negative value of `50 crores. In the economy, 20% of an increase in income is saved. In the light of above context, identify the value of investment multiplier (K). (A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) ∞ (infinite)
28. Justify/identify the identity APC + APS = 1 (or MPC + MPS = 1)
2×Board 2023Sample 20261/3 marks
"Sum of the Average Propensity to Consume (APC) and Average Propensity to Save (APS) is always equal to one." Justify the given statement with the help of a suitable argument.
29. Statement-based MCQ judging properties of the consumption function and MPC/MPS
2×Board 2024Sample 20251 marks
Read the following statements carefully. Statement 1: The maximum value of Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) can be unity. Statement 2: As the income of an economy increases, the proportionate increase in the level of consumption is always more than the increase in the level of income. Choose the correct option: (A) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false. (B) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true. (C) Both Statements 1 and 2 are true. (D) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false.
30. Explain the adjustment mechanism when ex-ante saving and investment differ
2×Board 2023Board 20254 marks
Explain the adjustment mechanism in case ex-ante savings are greater than ex-ante investments.
31. Identify full employment / voluntary vs involuntary unemployment from a definition
2×Board 2023Board 20241 marks
Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion (A): Full employment situation refers to absence of involuntary unemployment. Reason (R): Under full employment situation, all the willing and able bodied people get employment at the prevailing wage rate. Choose the correct alternative: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.
Government Budget and the Economy
32. Classify budget items into revenue vs capital receipts with justification
4×Board 2023Board 20242/4 marks
Classify the following as Revenue receipts or Capital receipts. Give valid arguments in support of your answer: Interest received on loan.
33. State/differentiate the two heads of tax revenue (direct vs indirect taxes)
2×Board 2026Sample 20253/4 marks
Read the following text: According to the Economic Survey 2024-25, the government budget's projections for the fiscal year 2025-26 indicate that gross direct tax revenue will rise by 12.7%, while gross indirect tax collections are expected to grow by 8.3% relative to FY 2024-25. Direct taxes include income tax and corporate tax, reflecting earnings and profits of households and firms, and play a key role in revenue growth. Indirect taxes encompass Goods and Services Tax (GST), custom duties and other transaction-based levies. Higher growth projected for direct taxes suggests a push to enhance tax buoyancy through improved compliance and reforms; indirect taxes are expected to benefit from consumption trends and GST administration improvements. The balanced tax strategy aims to mobilise resources while supporting fiscal consolidation and sustainable economic growth. Differentiate between the two types of taxes indicated in the above text, with suitable examples.
34. Identify the budgetary objective/nature illustrated by a welfare scheme
2×Board 2025Sample 20251/4 marks
"Under the Ayushmaan Bharat Scheme, the government provides free medical treatment to the poorer section of the society." Identify and explain the nature of budget expenditure and its objective, indicated in the given statement.
35. Numerical: compute/identify a government deficit (primary/fiscal) from budget data
2×Board 2023Sample 20251/3 marks
As per the data presented in the Union Budget 2023-24, the total receipts of the government other than borrowings and the total expenditure are estimated at `27.2 lakh crore and `45 lakh crore respectively. The value of the ______ deficit would be `17.8 lakh crore. (A) revenue (B) fiscal (C) budgetary (D) primary
36. Distinguish between fiscal deficit and revenue deficit
2×Board 2023Board 20242 marks
Distinguish between 'fiscal deficit' and 'revenue deficit'.
37. Explain the economic stability / stabilisation function of the government budget
2×Board 2023Board 20243/4 marks
[Question for Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 16 b(i)] Explain the stabilisation function of the Government Budget.
Balance of Payments
38. Numerical: find exports/imports or the balance of trade from trade data
4×Board 2023Board 2024Board 2025Sample 20251 marks
If a country exports goods worth of `600 crores and imports goods worth of `450 crores, the value of Balance of Trade of the country would be ______ of `______ crores. (A) deficit, 150 (B) surplus, 150 (C) deficit, 1,050 (D) surplus, 1,050
39. Identify the BoP sub-account (current/capital) and side (debit/credit) of a transaction
3×Board 2023Board 2024Sample 20251/3 marks
'Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) witnessed a sharp turnaround during 2023-24 with net FPI inflows of US$ 32.4 billion.' In which sub-account and on which side of the Balance of Payments account the above transaction will be recorded? Give reasons in support of your answer.
40. Statement MCQ on fixed/floating systems and depreciation vs devaluation
2×Board 2026Sample 20261 marks
Read the following statements carefully. Statement 1: Depreciation of currency is an economic action undertaken by the government of a nation under the fixed exchange rate system. Statement 2: Under the floating exchange Rate system, authorities actively intervene in the foreign exchange market by way of maintaining foreign exchange reserves. In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option: (A) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. (B) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true. (C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
41. Assertion-reason on recording unilateral transfers / external assistance in BoP accounts
2×Board 2026Sample 20261 marks
Read the following statements: Assertion (A): Unilateral Transfers are recorded in the Current Account of the Balance of Payments (BoP) of a nation. Reason (R): Capital account records transactions which cause a change in the assets or liabilities of the country. Choose the correct option: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.
42. Evaluate classification of a private loan vs a BoP-financing govt loan as autonomous
2×Board 2026Sample 20264 marks
Michel, an entrepreneur of Country Zeta, borrowed $5 million from an overseas bank to expand his textile business. During the same financial year, the Government of Country Zeta secured a loan of $30 Billion from an International Financial Institution to manage the ongoing Balance of Payments. Samuel, an Economics student categorised both of these transactions as 'autonomous transactions' in the BoP account of the country. Do you agree with his classification? Justify your answer with valid reasons.
43. MCQ on autonomous/accommodating transactions and BoP surplus/deficit definition
2×Board 2023Board 20241 marks
Surplus in Balance of Payments (BOP) refers to the excess of ______. (A) Autonomous payments over Autonomous receipts (B) Current Account payments over Autonomous receipts (C) Capital Account receipts over Capital Account payments (D) Autonomous receipts over Autonomous payments
Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence and 1950-1990
44. Colonial foreign trade: Britain's monopoly control and the drain of wealth
3×Board 2026Sample 2025Sample 20261/3 marks
Read the following statements carefully. Statement 1: During the British rule in India, the export surplus was utilised to import of invisible items from Britain. Statement 2: Indians paid for the expenses incurred by an office set up by the colonial government in Britain. In the light of above statements, choose the correct option: (A) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. (B) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true. (C) Both statements 1 and 2 are true. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
45. Identify/justify the import-substitution and protective trade strategy
3×Board 2025Board 20261/3 marks
"In the post-independence era, India adopted a protective tariff policy." Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with any two valid arguments.
46. Rationale behind industrial licensing / regulation of private sector under IPR 1956
3×Board 2023Board 2024Sample 20253/4 marks
'Under the Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956 in India, the system of industrial licensing was introduced to promote regional equality.' Justify the given statement with valid arguments.
47. Rationale behind choosing self-reliance as a planning objective
2×Board 2025Sample 20253/4 marks
Describe briefly a rationale behind choosing 'Self-reliance' as a planning objective for the Indian economy.
48. Infrastructure built under colonial rule served British interests
2×Board 2024Board 20261/4 marks
"The British sought to achieve their vested interest through their policies of infrastructural development in India." Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid explanation.
49. Changes in / lopsided nature of the colonial occupational structure
2×Board 2024Board 20263/4 marks
State and explain any two changes which were observed in India's occupational structure during the British Rule.
Economic Reforms since 1991
50. MCQ: identify the reform sector from a described measure (capital market / mutual funds)
2×Board 2026Sample 20261 marks
Read the following text: "In the recent times, the Government of India, has introduced several measures to encourage greater public participation in the capital market, including both primary and secondary stock markets." Under which sector have the above mentioned reforms been introduced? (A) Industrial (B) Financial (C) Taxation (D) Foreign Trade
51. Define/distinguish multilateral and bilateral trade (and trade agreements)
3×Board 2023Board 2025Board 20261/3 marks
Discuss briefly, how bilateral trade agreements are different from multilateral trade agreements?
52. Appraise disinvestment policy and its methods (strategic/minority sale)
2×Board 2026Sample 20253 marks
'Strategic sale of a public sector undertaking and minority sale of their shares are methods of disinvestment.' Defend or refute the given statement with valid argument.
53. India as a favoured outsourcing hub and the factors behind it
2×Board 2025Board 20262/3 marks
Mr. Ravi, an IT entrepreneur from Bengaluru, observed that several MNC's prefer India as their outsourcing Hub for services like software development, customer support, data management etc. His friend Priya believes this is due to certain inherent advantages of the Indian economy. In your opinion, state and explain any two factors that make India a preferred outsourcing destination.
Human Capital Formation in India
54. Relationship between human capital formation and economic growth
3×Board 2025Sample 20251/3/4 marks
Read the following statements: Assertion (A): Human capital formation increases the rate of participation of population to economic activities and leads to economic growth. Reason (R): Rate of participation of people refers to the percentage of people engaged in production process of a country. Choose the correct option: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.
55. Role of education in human capital formation and human potential
2×Board 2026Sample 20261/2 marks
Read the following statements: Assertion (A): Education facilitates the assimilation of knowledge and competencies. It also fosters inventive capacities and enhances the aptitude to integrate advance technology. Reason (R): Education plays a pivotal role in transforming cognitive perspectives and serves as a catalyst for the economic advancement of a nation. Choose the correct option: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.
56. Laws/initiatives (RTE, dropout measures) to improve access to education
2×Board 2026Sample 20262/3 marks
Read the following text: To ensure inclusive and quality education for all, the Indian government has launched several important schemes aimed at improving access, equity and learning outcomes, especially among disadvantaged group. The Right to Education (RTE) Act, passed by the India Parliament on August 4, 2009, guarantees free and compulsory education to every child between 6-14 years of age, ensuring all children have access to education in neighbourhood schools until they complete elementary education. Another key initiative is Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (SSA), introduced in 2001, one of India's flagship programmes for Universalisation of Elementary Education. Digital India Campaign, launched on July 1, 2015, focuses on transforming India into a digitally empowered society by improving mobile and internet connectivity, particularly in rural and remote regions, supporting digital learning and access to educational resources. Identify, which law guarantees free and compulsory education upto the age of 14 years. Explain, how does it help in enhancing access to education.
57. Importance/contribution of increasing public expenditure on education
2×Board 2026Sample 20262/3 marks
(Based on the education-schemes text above) In your opinion, how the increase in public spending on education contributed to India's social and economic transformation? Support your answer with valid arguments.
58. Identify the source of human capital formation indicated in a scenario
2×Board 2023Board 20241/3 marks
"In India, National Education Policy 2020 has stressed a lot on in-service training of the teachers." Identify the source of Human Capital Formation (HCF) indicated in the aforesaid statement.
Rural Development
59. Regulation of markets as a measure to improve agricultural marketing conditions
3×Board 2024Board 2026Sample 20261 marks
Read the following statements: Assertion (A): The Government of India adopted the measure of regulation of markets to improve marketing conditions for agricultural products. Reason (R): Regulation of market ensured transparent pricing, fair trade practices, and protection for farmers against exploitation in agricultural marketing. Choose the correct option: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.
60. State examples of diversification / allied activities in rural development
2×Board 2024Sample 20251 marks
State any two examples of allied activities.
Employment: Growth, Informalisation and Related Issues
61. Identify/distinguish worker categories (self-employed, regular, casual, hired)
4×Board 2023Board 2025Sample 2025Sample 20261/3 marks
Distinguish between self-employed and hired workers with the help of a suitable example.
62. Identify/define types of unemployment (disguised, frictional, NSSO definition)
3×Board 2024Board 2025Board 20261 marks
State the meaning of 'Disguised Unemployment'.
63. Casualisation/informalisation as a key issue in India's labour market
3×Board 2022Board 2023Board 20261/3/4 marks
Identify, which of the following, highlights a highly relevant issue associated with evolving employment trends in India's labour market? (A) Progressive increase in the share of permanent salaried employees. (B) Increase in the proportion of casually employed individuals. (C) Expansion of self-employment avenues in all regions. (D) Significant rise in job opportunities within the formal sector.
64. Identify/explain jobless growth from a scenario
2×Board 2023Sample 20251 marks
"Assuming in a hypothetical economy, Real Gross Domestic Product recorded a growth rate of 9% during a fiscal year. However, the economy faced a significant challenge in terms of creating an adequate number of employment opportunities." Identify the situation indicated in the given statement: A. Casualisation of workforce B. Informalisation of workforce C. Formalisation of workforce D. Jobless growth
65. Explain reasons behind a rural vs urban employment pattern
2×Board 2025Board 20263 marks
[Question for Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 32 (B)] Elaborate any two reasons behind more women employed in economic activities in Rural areas as compared to Urban areas.
Environment and Sustainable Development
66. Source/elaboration of the definition of sustainable development
2×Board 2026Sample 20261/3 marks
"Sustainable development refers to the development that meets the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generations, to meet their own needs." The above mentioned definition has been given by ______. (A) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (B) United Nations Committee on Environment and Development (C) United Nations Committee on Protection of Environment (D) United Nations Conference on Protection of Environment
67. Identify the environmental crisis where resource demand surpasses supply
2×Board 2025Sample 20261 marks
The population explosion and advent of Industrial Revolution led to the ______. A. reversal of supply-demand relationship of environmental resources B. decrease in demand for environmental resources C. decrease in the average temperature of the earth's lower atmosphere D. increase in the environmental quality
68. State/explain/identify strategies for sustainable development in India
3×Board 2023Board 2024Board 20251/3 marks
[Question for visually impaired candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 19] Identify, which of the following is NOT one of the strategies for Sustainable Development. (A) Use of non-conventional sources of energy (B) Use of fossil fuel for transportation (C) Use of traditional knowledge (D) Use of organic compost manure
69. Central Pollution Control Board set up in 1974 for water and air pollution
2×Board 2024Sample 20251 marks
______ was setup in 1974 by the Indian government to address two major environmental concerns viz. water and air pollution. A. State Pollution Control Board B. Central Pollution Control Board C. Brundtland Commission D. Montreal Protocol
70. Justify why a given practice (mini-hydel/bio-pesticides) is environment-friendly
2×Board 2023Board 20251/3 marks
"Bio-pesticides help to reduce the ill-impacts of green revolution on soil and water bodies while promoting sustainable development." Justify the given statement with valid explanation.
Comparative Development Experiences of India and its Neighbours
71. Causes, consequences and impacts of China's one-child policy
3×Board 2024Board 2026Sample 20251/2/3 marks
"In the late 1970's China's population growth rate has sharply declined as compared to India." Elucidate the reasons and impacts of this situation.
72. Reasons for Pakistan's slow growth and re-emergence of poverty
2×Board 2023Sample 20263/4 marks
"Pakistan was maintaining a healthy economic growth momentum of 6.3% till 1990s, however it lost its track of economic growth falling to 5.3% between 2015-17." Do you agree with the given statement? Justify your answer with valid arguments.
73. Reforms (SEZs / open-door policy) responsible for China's rapid growth
2×Board 2024Sample 20252/4 marks
'The reform process implemented in the late 1970s, commonly known as China's open door policy, encompassed a wide range of reforms across sectors like agriculture, investment, industry etc. These reforms played a pivotal role in driving the rapid growth of the Chinese economy over subsequent decades.' In the light of the given text, discuss any two reforms responsible for the rapid economic growth of China.
74. Assertion-reason on China's social-infrastructure investment and HDI
2×Board 2024Board 20251 marks
Read the following statements: Assertion (A): Prior to economic reforms, public investment in social infrastructure by China resulted in better Human Development Indicators (HDI). Reason (R): China is ahead of India and Pakistan on many Human Development Indicators (HDI). Choose the correct option: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (C) A is true, but R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true.
75. MCQ: the sector/focus of China's Great Leap Forward campaign
2×Board 2023Board 20251 marks
______ sector was the primary focus of the Great Leap Forward in China. (A) Tax (B) Industrial (C) Financial (D) Educational